You can stop pointing me at the Wikipedia article. I've read it, and it still doesn't answer the question. I'd give more weight to a HN comment that does answer the question than to the wiki article that doesn't, even if the comment is just secondhand recollections that somebody qualified clearly said the ruling doesn't affect the legal status of speech that is clearly political. Did Morse overturn Tinker with the help of anti-drug scaremongering, or was Morse actually a narrow ruling on something not covered by Tinker?

Edit: By searching SCOTUSBlog, it appears that the answer may be that the ruling itself is pretty unclear about how broad or narrow it is, though Kennedy and Alito's concurrence clearly states that it doesn't apply to political speech. I guess we can at least agree that Morse might be a pretty narrow ruling.