Why is that an inconvienient truth, exactly? I don't understand why the excellent access to food of the American poor has anything to do with whether the free market can feed everyone.
> I don't understand why the excellent access to food of the American poor has anything to do with whether the free market can feed everyone.
It's the (mostly) free market that is producing that food at low cost and in such large amounts.
As I asked at the beginning, where do you have both free markets and starving people? I ask because it's easy to find places with starving people, yet they're not uniformly distributed.
And, how many places with not free markets manage to not have starving people and/or the occasional famine?
