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Please explain how the difference in these legal systems is worth the pedantry.


Sure, although this does feel like it's becoming painfully drawn out. Let's use a simple parallel example: If someone's having a laugh at, say, Trump. Then they use that as an example of how those those silly Canadians are always electing daft politicians. You're probably going to point out that Trump was not in fact the president of Canada. That the example is not relevant.

Likewise, it is a mistake to lump the Nazi dog case in with the other case. One occurred under Scottish legal jurisdiction, the other under English legal jurisdiction. The example is not relevant.


In both cases the relevant law was Section 127 of the Communications Act of the United Kingdom.


That is a very fair point and rebuttal, thank you.




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