But your first question is much more interesting in what it seems to imply.
If i understand it correctly, the converse would be: entities are free to not invest their money when there are no worthwhile ventures.
This sounds all well and good on an individual level.
But by what logic or mechanism can the ~200 countries that exist have the ability to 'hold' money and not 'invest' it?
But your first question is much more interesting in what it seems to imply.
If i understand it correctly, the converse would be: entities are free to not invest their money when there are no worthwhile ventures.
This sounds all well and good on an individual level. But by what logic or mechanism can the ~200 countries that exist have the ability to 'hold' money and not 'invest' it?