Was the New Deal redlining out-and-out discrimination or a matter of accidentally creating conditions, i.e. based on bad intelligence, that resulted in discrimination. I always understood it to be the former.
The level of plausible deniability regarding The New Deal is mostly a matter of opinion, but personally I think it was pretty transparent in how it intentionally discriminated.
It’s the modern examples that I think are much more questionable. For example, there are more liquor stores in black neighbourhoods. Is this because:
a) A conspiracy to use alcohol to suppress the black population?
b) Those neighbourhoods have a greater demand for liquor stores?
